NEW QUESTION 1

A periodic review of user account management should not determine:

• A. Conformity with the concept of least privilege.
• B. Whether active accounts are still being used.
• C. Strength of user-chosen passwords.
• D. Whether management authorizations are up-to-date.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Organizations should have a process for (1) requesting, establishing, issuing, and closing user accounts; (2) tracking users and their respective access authorizations; and (3) managing these functions.
Reviews should examine the levels of access each individual has, conformity with the concept of least privilege, whether all accounts are still active, whether management
authorizations are up-to-date, whether required training has been completed, and so forth. These reviews can be conducted on at least two levels: (1) on an application-by-application basis, or (2) on a system wide basis.
The strength of user passwords is beyond the scope of a simple user account management review, since it requires specific tools to try and crack the password file/database through either a dictionary or brute-force attack in order to check the strength of passwords.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne & GUTTMAN, Barbara, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and Practices for Securing Information Technology Systems, September 1996 (page 28).

NEW QUESTION 2

In the course of responding to and handling an incident, you work on determining the root cause of the incident. In which step are you in?

• A. Recovery
• B. Containment
• C. Triage
• D. Analysis and tracking

Answer: D

Explanation:
In this step, your main objective is to examine and analyze what has occurred and focus on determining the root cause of the incident.
Recovery is incorrect as recovery is about resuming operations or bringing affected systems back into production
Containment is incorrect as containment is about reducing the potential impact of an incident.
Triage is incorrect as triage is about determining the seriousness of the incident and filtering out false positives
Reference:
Official Guide to the CISSP CBK, pages 700-704

NEW QUESTION 3

If an employee's computer has been used by a fraudulent employee to commit a crime, the hard disk may be seized as evidence and once the investigation is complete it would follow the normal steps of the Evidence Life Cycle. In such case, the Evidence life cycle would not include which of the following steps listed below?

• A. Acquisition collection and identification
• B. Analysis
• C. Storage, preservation, and transportation
• D. Destruction

Answer: D

Explanation:
Unless the evidence is illegal then it should be returned to owner, not destroyed.
The Evidence Life Cycle starts with the discovery and collection of the evidence. It progresses through the following series of states until it is finally returned to the victim or owner:
• Acquisition collection and identification
• Analysis
• Storage, preservation, and transportation
• Presented in court
• Returned to victim (owner)
The Second edition of the ISC2 book says on page 529-530:
Identifying evidence: Correctly identifying the crime scene, evidence, and potential containers of evidence.
Collecting or acquiring evidence: Adhering to the criminalistic principles and ensuring that the contamination and the destruction of the scene are kept to a minimum. Using sound, repeatable, collection techniques that allow for the demonstration of the accuracy and integrity of evidence, or copies of evidence.
Examining or analyzing the evidence: Using sound scientific methods to determine the characteristics of the evidence, conducting comparison for individuation of evidence, and conducting event reconstruction.
Presentation of findings: Interpreting the output from the examination and analysis based on findings of fact and articulating these in a format appropriate for the intended audience (e.g., court brief, executive memo, report).
Note on returning the evidence to the Owner/Victim
The final destination of most types of evidence is back with its original owner. Some types of evidence, such as
drugs or drug paraphernalia (i.e., contraband), are destroyed after the trial.
Any evidence gathered during a search, although maintained by law enforcement, is legally under the control of the courts. And although a seized item may be yours and may even have your name on it, it might not be returned to you unless the suspect signs a release or after a hearing by the court. Unfortunately, many victims do not want to go to trial; they just want to get their property back.
Many investigations merely need the information on a disk to prove or disprove a fact in question; thus, there is no need to seize the entire system. Once a schematic of the system is drawn or photographed, the hard disk can be removed and then transported to a forensic lab for copying.
Mirror copies of the suspect disk are obtained using forensic software and then one of those copies can be returned to the victim so that business operations can resume.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 9: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 309).
and
The Official Study Book, Second Edition, Page 529-230

NEW QUESTION 4

A code, as is pertains to cryptography:

• A. Is a generic term for encryption.
• B. Is specific to substitution ciphers.
• C. Deals with linguistic units.
• D. Is specific to transposition ciphers.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Historically, a code refers to a cryptosystem that deals with linguistic units: words, phrases, sentences, and so forth. Codes are only useful for specialized circumstances where the message to transmit has an already defined equivalent ciphertext word.
Source: DUPUIS, Cl?ment, CISSP Open Study Guide on domain 5, cryptography, April 1999.

NEW QUESTION 5

What mechanism automatically causes an alarm originating in a data center to be transmitted over the local municipal fire or police alarm circuits for relaying to both the local police/fire station and the appropriate headquarters?

• A. Central station alarm
• B. Proprietary alarm
• C. A remote station alarm
• D. An auxiliary station alarm

Answer: D

Explanation:
Auxiliary station alarms automatically cause an alarm originating in a data center to be transmitted over the local municipal fire or police alarm circuits for relaying to both the local police/fire station and the appropriate headquarters. They are usually Municipal Fire Alarm Boxes are installed at your business or building, they are wired directly into the fire station.
Central station alarms are operated by private security organizations. It is very similar to a proprietary alarm system (see below). However, the biggest difference is the monitoring and receiving of alarm is done off site at a central location manned by non staff members. It is a third party.
Proprietary alarms are similar to central stations alarms except that monitoring is performed directly on the protected property. This type of alarm is usually use to protect large industrials or commercial buildings. Each of the buildings in the same vincinity has their own alarm system, they are all wired together at a central location within one of the building acting as a common receiving point. This point is usually far away from the other building so it is not under the same danger. It is usually man 24 hours a day by a trained team who knows how to react under different conditions.
A remote station alarm is a direct connection between the signal-initiating device at the protected property and the signal-receiving device located at a remote station, such as the fire station or usually a monitoring service. This is the most popular type of implementation and the owner of the premise must pay a monthly monitoring fee. This is what most people use in their home where they get a company like ADT to receive the alarms on their behalf.
A remote system differs from an auxiliary system in that it does not use the municipal fire of police alarm circuits.
Reference(s) used for this question:
ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 11: Physical Security (page 211).
and
Great presentation J.T.A. Stone on SlideShare

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following can be used as a covert channel?

• A. Storage and timing.
• B. Storage and low bits.
• C. Storage and permissions.
• D. Storage and classification.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Orange book requires protection against two types of covert channels, Timing and Storage.
The following answers are incorrect:
Storage and low bits. Is incorrect because, low bits would not be considered a covert channel.
Storage and permissions. Is incorrect because, permissions would not be considered a covert channel.
Storage and classification. Is incorrect because, classification would not be considered a covert channel.

NEW QUESTION 7

Valuable paper insurance coverage does not cover damage to which of the following?

• A. Inscribed, printed and Written documents
• B. Manuscripts
• C. Records
• D. Money and Securities

Answer: D

Explanation:
All businesses are driven by records. Even in today's electronic society businesses generate mountains of critical documents everyday. Invoices, client lists, calendars, contracts, files, medical records, and innumerable other records are generated every day.
Stop and ask yourself what happens if your business lost those documents today.
Valuable papers business insurance coverage provides coverage to your business in case of a loss of vital records. Over the years policy language has evolved to include a number of different types of records. Generally, the policy will cover "written, printed, or otherwise inscribed documents and records, including books, maps, films, drawings, abstracts, deeds, mortgages, and manuscripts." But, read the policy coverage carefully. The policy language typically "does not mean "money" or "securities," converted data,programs or instructions used in your data processing operations, including the materials on which the data is recorded."
The coverage is often included as a part of property insurance or as part of a small business owner policy. For example, a small business owner policy includes in many cases valuable papers coverage up to $25,000.
It is important to realize what the coverage actually entails and, even more critical, to analyze your business to determine what it would cost to replace records.
The coverage pays for the loss of vital papers and the cost to replace the records up to the limit of the insurance and after application of any deductible. For example, the insurer will pay to have waterlogged papers dried and reproduced (remember, fires are put out by water and the fire department does not stop to remove your book keeping records). The insurer may cover temporary storage or the cost of moving records to avoid a loss.
For some businesses, losing customer lists, some business records, and contracts, can mean the expense and trouble of having to recreate those documents, but is relatively easy and a low level risk and loss. Larger businesses and especially professionals (lawyers, accountants, doctors) are in an entirely separate category and the cost of replacement of documents is much higher. Consider, in analyzing your business and potential risk, what it would actually cost to reproduce your critical business records. Would you need to hire temporary personnel? How many hours of productivity would go into replacing the records? Would you need to obtain originals? Would original work need to be recreated (for example, home inspectors, surveyors, cartographers)?
Often when a business owner considers the actual cost related to the reproduction of records, the owner quickly realizes that their business insurance policy limits for valuable papers coverage is woefully inadequate.
Insurers (and your insurance professional)will often suggest higher coverages for valuable papers. The extra premium is often worth the cost and should be considered.
Finally, most policies will require records to be protected. You need to review your declarations pages and speak with your insurer to determine what is required. Some insurers may offer discounted coverage if there is a document retention and back up plan in place and followed. There are professional organizations that can assist your business in designing a records management policy to lower the risk (and your premiums). For example, ARMA International has been around since 1955 and its members consist of some of the top document retention and storage companies.
Reference(s) used for this question: http://businessinsure.about.com/od/propertyinsurance/f/vpcov.htm

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following would be used to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)?

• A. Clark-Wilson Access Control
• B. Role-based access control
• C. Lattice-based access control
• D. User dictated access control

Answer: C

Explanation:
The lattice is a mechanism use to implement Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Under Mandatory Access Control (MAC) you have: Mandatory Access Control
Under Non Discretionary Access Control (NDAC) you have: Rule-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Under Discretionary Access Control (DAC) you have: Discretionary Access Control
The Lattice Based Access Control is a type of access control used to implement other access control method. A lattice is an ordered list of elements that has a least upper bound and a most lower bound. The lattice can be used for MAC, DAC, Integrity level, File Permission, and more
For example in the case of MAC, if we look at common government classifications, we have the following:
TOP SECRET
SECRET -----------------------I am the user at secret CONFIDENTIAL
SENSITIVE BUT UNCLASSIFIED UNCLASSIFIED
If you look at the diagram above where I am a user at SECRET it means that I can access document at lower classification but not document at TOP SECRET. The lattice is a list of ORDERED ELEMENT, in this case the ordered elements are classification levels. My least upper bound is SECRET and my most lower bound is UNCLASSIFIED.
However the lattice could also be used for Integrity Levels such as: VERY HIGH
HIGH
MEDIUM ----------I am a user, process, application at the medium level LOW
VERY LOW
In the case of of Integrity levels you have to think about TRUST. Of course if I take for example the the VISTA operating system which is based on Biba then Integrity Levels would be used. As a user having access to the system I cannot tell a process running with administrative privilege what to do. Else any users on the system could take control of the system by getting highly privilege process to do things on their behalf. So no read down would be allowed in this case and this is an example of the Biba model.
Last but not least the lattice could be use for file permissions: RWX
RW ---------User at this level
R
If I am a user with READ and WRITE (RW) access privilege then I cannot execute the file
because I do not have execute permission which is the X under linux and UNIX.
Many people confuse the Lattice Model and many books says MAC = LATTICE, however the lattice can be use for other purposes.
There is also Role Based Access Control (RBAC) that exists out there. It COULD be used to simulate MAC but it is not MAC as it does not make use of Label on objects indicating sensitivity and categories. MAC also require a clearance that dominates the object.
You can get more info about RBAC at:http://csrc.nist.gov/groups/SNS/rbac/faq.html#03 Also note that many book uses the same acronym for Role Based Access Control and Rule
Based Access Control which is RBAC, this can be confusing.
The proper way of writing the acronym for Rule Based Access Control is RuBAC, unfortunately it is not commonly used.
References:
There is a great article on technet that talks about the lattice in VISTA: http://blogs.technet.com/b/steriley/archive/2006/07/21/442870.aspx
also see:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 33).
and
http://www.microsoft-watch.com/content/vista/gaging_vistas_integrity.html

NEW QUESTION 9

Which expert system operating mode allows determining if a given hypothesis is valid?

• A. Blackboard
• B. Lateral chaining
• C. Forward chaining
• D. Backward chaining

Answer: D

Explanation:
Backward-chaining mode - the expert system backtracks to determine if a given hypothesis is valid. Backward-chaining is generally used when there are a large number of possible solutions relative to the number of inputs.
Incorrect answers are:
In a forward-chaining mode, the expert system acquires information and comes to a conclusion based on that information. Forward-chaining is the reasoning approach that can be used when there is a small number of solutions relative to the number of inputs.
Blackboard is an expert system-reasoning methodology in which a solution is generated by the use of a virtual blackboard, wherein information or potential solutions are placed on the blackboard by a plurality of individuals or expert knowledge sources. As more information is placed on the blackboard in an iterative process, a solution is generated.
Lateral-chaining mode - No such expert system mode. Sources:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 7: Applications and Systems Development (page 259).
KRUTZ, Ronald & VINES, Russel, The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition, Wiley Publishing Inc., 2003, Chapter 7: Expert Systems (page 354).

NEW QUESTION 10

Which is the last line of defense in a physical security sense?

• A. people
• B. interior barriers
• C. exterior barriers
• D. perimeter barriers

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Ultimately, people are the last line of defense for your company??s assets" (Pastore & Dulaney, 2006, p. 529).
Pastore, M. and Dulaney, E. (2006). CompTIA Security+ study guide: Exam SY0-101. Indianapolis, IN: Sybex.

NEW QUESTION 11

What can be defined as a value computed with a cryptographic algorithm and appended to a data object in such a way that any recipient of the data can use the signature to verify the data's origin and integrity?

• A. A digital envelope
• B. A cryptographic hash
• C. A Message Authentication Code
• D. A digital signature

Answer: D

Explanation:
RFC 2828 (Internet Security Glossary) defines a digital signature as a value computed with a cryptographic algorithm and appended to a data object in such a way that any recipient of the data can use the signature to verify the data's origin and integrity.
The steps to create a Digital Signature are very simple:
1. You create a Message Digest of the message you wish to send
2. You encrypt the message digest using your Private Key which is the action of Signing
3. You send the Message along with the Digital Signature to the recipient
To validate the Digital Signature the recipient will make use of the sender Public Key. Here are the steps:
1. The receiver will decrypt the Digital Signature using the sender Publick Key producing a clear text message digest.
2. The receiver will produce his own message digest of the message received.
3. At this point the receiver will compare the two message digest (the one sent and the one produce by the receiver), if the two matches, it proves the authenticity of the message and it confirms that the message was not modified in transit validating the integrity as well. Digital Signatures provides for Authenticity and Integrity only. There is no confidentiality in place, if you wish to get confidentiality it would be needed for the sender to encrypt everything with the receiver public key as a last step before sending the message.
A Digital Envelope is a combination of encrypted data and its encryption key in an encrypted form that has been prepared for use of the recipient. In simple term it is a type of security that uses two layers of encryption to protect a message. First, the message itself is encoded using symmetric encryption, and then the key to decode the message is encrypted using public-key encryption. This technique overcomes one of the problems of public-key encryption, which is that it is slower than symmetric encryption. Because only the key is protected with public-key encryption, there is very little overhead.
A cryptographic hash is the result of a cryptographic hash function such as MD5, SHA-1, or
SHA-2. A hash value also called a Message Digest is like a fingerprint of a message. It is used to proves integrity and ensure the message was not changed either in transit or in storage.
A Message Authentication Code (MAC) refers to an ANSI standard for a checksum that is computed with a keyed hash that is based on DES or it can also be produced without using DES by concataning the Secret Key at the end of the message (simply adding it at the end of the message) being sent and then producing a Message digest of the Message+Secret Key together. The MAC is then attached and sent along with the message but the Secret Key is NEVER sent in clear text over the network.
In cryptography, HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code), is a specific construction for calculating a message authentication code (MAC) involving a cryptographic hash function in combination with a secret key. As with any MAC, it may be used to simultaneously verify both the data integrity and the authenticity of a message. Any cryptographic hash function, such as MD5 or SHA-1, may be used in the calculation of an HMAC; the resulting MAC algorithm is termed HMAC-MD5 or HMAC-SHA1 accordingly. The cryptographic strength of the HMAC depends upon the cryptographic strength of the underlying hash function, the size of its hash output length in bits and on the size and quality of the cryptographic key.
There is more than one type of MAC: Meet CBC-MAC
In cryptography, a Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code, abbreviated CBC- MAC, is a technique for constructing a message authentication code from a block cipher. The message is encrypted with some block cipher algorithm in CBC mode to create a chain of blocks such that each block depends on the proper encryption of the previous block. This interdependence ensures that a change to any of the plaintext bits will cause the final encrypted block to change in a way that cannot be predicted or counteracted without knowing the key to the block cipher.
References:
SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000. and
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/D/digital_envelope.html and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CBC-MAC

NEW QUESTION 12

What enables a workstation to boot without requiring a hard or floppy disk drive?

• A. Bootstrap Protocol (BootP).
• B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
• C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
• D. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR).

Answer: A

Explanation:
Bootstrap Protocol (BootP) is an Internet Layer protocol that enables a workstation to boot without requiring a hard or floppy disk drive. Reverse Address
Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a TCP/IP protocol that permits a physical address, such as an Ethernet address, to be translated into an IP address. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a TCP/IP protocol that permits an IP address to be translated into a physical address. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a new IP addressing scheme.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 88.

NEW QUESTION 13

An access system that grants users only those rights necessary for them to perform their work is operating on which security principle?

• A. Discretionary Access
• B. Least Privilege
• C. Mandatory Access
• D. Separation of Duties

Answer: B

Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

NEW QUESTION 14

What is the goal of the Maintenance phase in a common development process of a security policy?

• A. to review the document on the specified review date
• B. publication within the organization
• C. to write a proposal to management that states the objectives of the policy
• D. to present the document to an approving body

Answer: A

Explanation:
"publication within the organization" is the goal of the Publication Phase "write a proposal to management that states the objectives of the policy" is part of Initial and Evaluation Phase "Present the document to an approving body" is part of Approval Phase.
Reference: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 3, 2002, Auerbach Publications.
Also: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 286).

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following models does NOT include data integrity or conflict of interest?

• A. Biba
• B. Clark-Wilson
• C. Bell-LaPadula
• D. Brewer-Nash

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bell LaPadula model (Bell 1975): The granularity of objects and subjects is not predefined, but the model prescribes simple access rights. Based on simple access restrictions the Bell LaPadula model enforces a discretionary access control policy enhanced with mandatory rules. Applications with rigid confidentiality requirements and without strong integrity requirements may properly be modeled.
These simple rights combined with the mandatory rules of the policy considerably restrict the spectrum of applications which can be appropriately modeled.
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
Also check:
Proceedings of the IFIP TC11 12th International Conference on Information Security, Samos (Greece), May 1996, On Security Models.

NEW QUESTION 16

What layer of the OSI/ISO model does Point-to-point tunnelling protocol (PPTP) work at?

• A. Data link layer
• B. Transport layer
• C. Session layer
• D. Network layer

Answer: A

Explanation:
PPTP operates at the data link layer (layer 2) of the OSI model and uses native PPP authentication and encryption services. Designed for individual client to server connections, it enables only a single point-to-point connection per session.
PPTP - Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol - extends the Point to Point Protocol (PPP) standard for traditional dial-up networking. PPTP is best suited for the remote access applications of VPNs, but it also supports LAN internetworking.
PPTP operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
Using PPTP
PPTP packages data within PPP packets, then encapsulates the PPP packets within IP packets (datagrams) for transmission through an Internet-based VPN tunnel. PPTP supports data encryption and compression of these packets. PPTP also uses a form of General Routing Encapsulation (GRE) to get data to and from its final destination.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications
and Network Security (page 95). and
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/vpn/l/aa030103a.htm and
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc768084.aspx

NEW QUESTION 17

Which access control model achieves data integrity through well-formed transactions and separation of duties?

• A. Clark-Wilson model
• B. Biba model
• C. Non-interference model
• D. Sutherland model

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Clark-Wilson model differs from other models that are subject- and object- oriented by introducing a third access element programs resulting in what is called an access triple, which prevents unauthorized users from modifying data or programs. The Biba model uses objects and subjects and addresses integrity based on a hierarchical
lattice of integrity levels. The non-interference model is related to the information flow model with restrictions on the information flow. The Sutherland model approaches integrity by focusing on the problem of inference.
Source: ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 2: Access Control Systems and Methodology (page 12).
And: KRAUSE, Micki & TIPTON, Harold F., Handbook of Information Security Management, CRC Press, 1997, Domain 1: Access Control.

NEW QUESTION 18

Which one of the following is NOT one of the outcomes of a vulnerability assessment?

• A. Quantative loss assessment
• B. Qualitative loss assessment
• C. Formal approval of BCP scope and initiation document
• D. Defining critical support areas

Answer: C

Explanation:
When seeking to determine the security position of an organization, the security professional will eventually turn to a vulnerability assessment to help identify specific areas of weakness that need to be addressed. A vulnerability assessment is the use of various tools and analysis methodologies to determine where a particular system or process may be susceptible to attack or misuse. Most vulnerability assessments concentrate on technical vulnerabilities in systems or applications, but the assessment
process is equally as effective when examining physical or administrative business processes.
The vulnerability assessment is often part of a BIA. It is similar to a Risk Assessment in that there is a quantitative (financial) section and a qualitative (operational) section. It differs in that i t is smaller than a full risk assessment and is focused on providing information that is used solely for the business continuity plan or disaster recovery plan.
A function of a vulnerability assessment is to conduct a loss impact analysis. Because there will be two parts to the assessment, a financial assessment and an operational assessment, it will be necessary to define loss criteria both quantitatively and qualitatively.
Quantitative loss criteria may be defined as follows:
Incurring financial losses from loss of revenue, capital expenditure, or personal liability resolution
The additional operational expenses incurred due to the disruptive event Incurring financial loss from resolution of violation of contract agreements
Incurring financial loss from resolution of violation of regulatory or compliance requirements Qualitative loss criteria may consist of the following:
The loss of competitive advantage or market share
The loss of public confidence or credibility, or incurring public mbarrassment
During the vulnerability assessment, critical support areas must be defined in order to assess the impact of a disruptive event. A critical support area is defined as a business unit or function that must be present to sustain continuity of the business processes, maintain life safety, or avoid public relations embarrassment.
Critical support areas could include the following:
Telecommunications, data communications, or information technology areas Physical infrastructure or plant facilities, transportation services
Accounting, payroll, transaction processing, customer service, purchasing
The granular elements of these critical support areas will also need to be identified. By granular elements we mean the personnel, resources, and services the critical support areas need to maintain business continuity
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4628-4632). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 277.

NEW QUESTION 19

RADIUS incorporates which of the following services?

• A. Authentication server and PIN codes.
• B. Authentication of clients and static passwords generation.
• C. Authentication of clients and dynamic passwords generation.
• D. Authentication server as well as support for Static and Dynamic passwords.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Network Access Server (NAS) operates as a client of RADIUS. The client is responsible for passing user information to
designated RADIUS servers, and then acting on the response which is returned.
RADIUS servers are responsible for receiving user connection requests, authenticating the user, and then returning all configuration information necessary for the client to deliver service to the user.
RADIUS authentication is based on provisions of simple username/password credentials.
These credentials are encrypted
by the client using a shared secret between the client and the RADIUS server. OIG 2007, Page 513
RADIUS incorporates an authentication server and can make uses of both dynamic and static passwords.
Since it uses the PAP and CHAP protocols, it also incluses static passwords.
RADIUS is an Internet protocol. RADIUS carries authentication, authorization, and configuration information between a Network Access Server and a shared Authentication Server. RADIUS features and functions are described primarily in the IETF (International Engineering Task Force) document RFC2138.
The term " RADIUS" is an acronym which stands for Remote Authentication Dial In User Service.
The main advantage to using a RADIUS approach to authentication is that it can provide a stronger form of authentication. RADIUS is capable of using a strong, two-factor form of authentication, in which users need to possess both a user ID and a hardware or software token to gain access.
Token-based schemes use dynamic passwords. Every minute or so, the token generates a unique 4-, 6- or 8-digit access number that is synchronized with the security server. To gain entry into the system, the user must generate both this one-time number and provide his or her user ID and password.
Although protocols such as RADIUS cannot protect against theft of an authenticated session via some realtime attacks, such as wiretapping, using unique, unpredictable authentication requests can protect against a wide range of active attacks.
RADIUS: Key Features and Benefits Features Benefits
RADIUS supports dynamic passwords and challenge/response passwords. Improved system security due to the fact that passwords are not static.
It is much more difficult for a bogus host to spoof users into giving up their passwords or password-generation algorithms.
RADIUS allows the user to have a single user ID and password for all computers in a network.
Improved usability due to the fact that the user has to remember only one login combination.
RADIUS is able to:
Prevent RADIUS users from logging in via login (or ftp). Require them to log in via login (or ftp)
Require them to login to a specific network access server (NAS); Control access by time of day.
Provides very granular control over the types of logins allowed, on a per-user basis. The time-out interval for failing over from an unresponsive primary RADIUS server to a
backup RADIUS server is site-configurable.
RADIUS gives System Administrator more flexibility in managing which users can login from which hosts or devices.
Stratus Technology Product Brief http://www.stratus.com/products/vos/openvos/radius.htm
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Pages 43, 44.
Also check: MILLER, Lawrence & GREGORY, Peter, CISSP for Dummies, 2002, Wiley Publishing, Inc., pages 45-46.

NEW QUESTION 20

Which type of password token involves time synchronization?

• A. Static password tokens
• B. Synchronous dynamic password tokens
• C. Asynchronous dynamic password tokens
• D. Challenge-response tokens

Answer: B

Explanation:
Synchronous dynamic password tokens generate a new unique password value at fixed time intervals, so the server and token need to be synchronized for the password to be accepted.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 37).
Also check out: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 4: Access Control (page 136).

NEW QUESTION 21
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